QUESTION 1
What is a risk analysis used for?
A. A risk analysis is used to express the value of information for an organization in monetary terms.
B. A risk analysis is used to clarify to management their responsibilities.
C. A risk analysis is used in conjunction with security measures to reduce risks to an acceptable level.
D. A risk analysis is used to ensure that security measures are deployed in a cost-effective and timely fashion.
Answer: D
QUESTION 1
Which of the following are reasons that Home Working can reduce your carbon footprint?
a) It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
b) It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
c) It reduces the space needed within the office.
d) It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
A. b and c only.
B. a and d only.
C. a and c only.
D. c and d only.
Answer: B
QUESTION 1
What is an acknowledged advantage of telecommuting?
A. It helps to reduce carbon emissions.
B. Remote meetings are more productive.
C. Work gets done more easily.
Answer: A
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered certification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered certification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently audited before it is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?
A. the Service Level Plans
B. the Service Management Plans
C. the SLAs with the other parties
D. the SLAs with the customers
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
When improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to be considered to ensure ongoing compliance with the service providerWhen improving the IT Service Management system, what needs to be considered to ensure on-going compliance with the service provider? Corporate objectives / requirements?
A. A competitor process managementsystemA competitor? process management system
B. Any standards defined by the company itself
C. The budget available to the Personnel Department
D. The time to update the process documentation
Answer: B
QUESTION 4
What is the definition of quality according to ISO 9000?
A. Quality is when all features of a service which are agreed with the customer are being delivered to the customer.
B. Quality is when the expectations from the customer to a certain service or product are being delivered to the customer.
C. Quality is when the requirements and expectations of all stakeholders involved in the product lifecycle are being fulfilled.
D. Quality is when the agreed service levels of a specific and defined service are met during morethen six subsequent periods.
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure continual improvement of a Service Management System?
A. Analyze and evaluate the existing situation to identify areas for improvement.
B. Analyze customer satisfaction and identify resulting actions.
C. Review the Service Management System at least annually.
D. Start an internal service organization evaluation.
Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An objective of capacity management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient capacity to meet the current and future agreed demands of the customer’s business needs. What document is produced to support this objective?
A. Availability plan
B. Business resource plan
C. Capacity plan
D. Service Management plan
Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You employ a few people who, while waiting to make a delivery, can carry out other tasks. You notice, however, that they use this time to send and read their private mail and surf the Internet. In legal terms, in which way can the use of the Internet and e-mail facilities be best regulated?
A. Installing an application that makes certain websites no longer accessible and that filters attachments in e-mails
B. Drafting a code of conduct for the use of the Internet and e-mail in which the rights and obligations of both the employer and staff are set down
C. Implementing privacy regulations
D. Installing a virus scanner
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
What is a risk analysis used for?
A. A risk analysis is used to express the value of information for an organization in monetary terms.
B. A risk analysis is used to clarify to management their responsibilities.
C. A risk analysis is used in conjunction with security measures to reduce risks to an acceptable level.
D. A risk analysis is used to ensure that security measures are deployed in a cost-effective and timely fashion.
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You have just started working at a large organization. You have been asked to sign a code of conduct as well as a contract. What does the organization wish to achieve with this?
A. A code of conduct helps to prevent the misuse of IT facilities.
B. A code of conduct is a legal obligation that organizations have to meet.
C. A code of conduct prevents a virus outbreak.
D. A code of conduct gives staff guidance on how to report suspected misuses of IT facilities.
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. On the basis of your risk analysis you have decided to take a number of measures. You have daily backups made of the server, keep the server room locked and install an intrusion alarm system and a sprinkler system. Which of these measures is a detective measure?
A. Backup tape
B. Intrusion alarm
C. Sprinkler installation
D. Access restriction to special rooms
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
There was a fire in a branch of the company Midwest Insurance. The fire department quickly arrived at the scene and could extinguish the fire before it spread and burned down the entire premises. The server, however, was destroyed in the fire. The backup tapes kept in another room had melted and many other documents were lost for good. What is an example of the indirect damage caused by this fire?
A. Melted backup tapes
B. Burned computer systems
C. Burned documents
D. Water damage due to the fire extinguishers
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
You are the owner of a growing company, SpeeDelivery, which provides courier services. You decide that it is time to draw up a risk analysis for your information system. This includes an inventory of the threats and risks. What is the relation between a threat, risk and risk analysis?
A. A risk analysis identifies threats from the known risks.
B. A risk analysis is used to clarify which threats are relevant and what risks they involve.
C. A risk analysis is used to remove the risk of a threat.
D. Risk analyses help to find a balance between threats and risks.
Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which is a legislative or regulatory act related to information security that can be imposed upon all organizations?
A. ISO/IEC 27001:2005
B. Intellectual Property Rights
C. ISO/IEC 27002:2005
D. Personal data protection legislation
Answer: D
QUESTION 8
You are the owner of the courier company SpeeDelivery. You have carried out a risk analysis and now want to determine your risk strategy. You decide to take measures for the large risks but not for the small risks. What is this risk strategy called?
A. Risk bearing
B. Risk avoiding
C. Risk neutral
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
What action is an unintentional human threat?
A. Arson
B. Theft of a laptop
C. Social engineering
D. Incorrect use of fire extinguishing equipment
Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?
A. Looking at Security Plans
B. Looking at the cause of Incidents
C. Looking at the Change Plan
D. Looking at the Release Strategy
Answer: B
QUESTION 1
What is a description of Governance?
A. How IT resources will be used to meet goals and deliver business value
B. a process that ensures individualsare aware of regulations, policies, and procedures that must be followed as a result of senior management decisions management
C. Who holds the authority to make decisions, determines accountability for actions and responsibility for outcomes, and addresses how expected performance will be evaluated
D. Possible adverse impacts on reaching goals and can arise from actions taken or not taken
Answer: C
QUESTION 1
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
A. NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B. NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C. The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D. With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
What is OpenID used for?
A. to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B. to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C. to pay on-line via your own bank account
D. to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites
Answer: D
QUESTION 3
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?
A. by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B. by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C. by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D. by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?
A. because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B. because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C. because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D. because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
What is an example of the use of location information?
A. to determine the user’s native language
B. to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C. to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D. to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system
Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Failover is the capacity to switch, often automatically, to another system or resource in the event of a failure. How does failover assist in the provision of cloud services?
A. It assists providers in ensuring continuity of service when there is a problem.
B. It automatically restarts the system in case of a failure.
C. It builds a back-up while the system is active.
D. It provides hidden storage to be used when needed.
Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?
A. It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B. It offers more security at home than at the office.
C. It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D. It does not require a network connection.
Answer: A
QUESTION 8
How might moving to the Cloud have a negative impact on users?
A. Development is no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
B. Software licensing is no longer part of operations.
C. Support and maintenance are no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
D. Uptimes can be guaranteed but not adjusted in a flexible manner.
Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What is not a staffing benefit of Cloud computing?
A. Fewer IT-staff
B. Lower employee benefits
C. Lower recruitment costs
D. Lower self-service costs
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which process is an external process for a Cloud data center?
A. Availability management
B. Capacity management
C. Service continuity management
D. Service level management
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is meant by Virtualization?
A. Virtualization means that data does not exist anywhere.
B. Virtualization is a method to combine more computing power onto one server.
C. Virtualization is a method to combine multiple computer environments onto one server.
D. Virtualization means that no real computer system is needed to distribute cloud solutions.
Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT part of quality planning?
A. Define quality responsibilities
B. Gain acceptance of the project product
C. Agree acceptance criteria
D. Set quality tolerances
Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which should be provided by a project mandate?
A. Terms of reference
B. Detailed Business Case
C. Stage tolerances
D. Initiation Stage Plan
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?
A. Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan
B. Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation
C. Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage
D. Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which should be funded by a change budget?
A. Increase in agreed scope
B. Initiation stage
C. Change Authority
D. Handover activities
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes a use of a Configuration Item Record?
A. Define the identification scheme to be applied to the project
B. Identify the techniques and procedures required within the Work Package
C. Record the change in a product’s status
D. Record the reporting requirements for the Work Package
Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which characteristic distinguishes a project from regular business operations?
A. Produces benefits
B. Introduces business change
C. Manages stakeholders
D. Incurs cost
Answer: B
QUESTION 7
What process aims to ensure accurate progress information is provided to the Project Manager?
A. Starting up a Project
B. Managing a Stage Boundary
C. Managing Product Delivery
D. Directing a Project
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Where should an off-specification be recorded?
A. Risk Register
B. Issue Register
C. Work Package
D. Configuration Management Strategy
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
During the Managing a Stage Boundary process what product is updated with estimated costs and time for the stage that is about to begin?
A. End Stage Report
B. Team Plan
C. Work Package
D. Project Plan
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?
A. Provides a defined structure of accountability, delegation, authority and communication
B. Includes techniques for critical path analysis and earned value analysis
C. Enables a Project Manager to be accountable for the success of a project
D. Prevents any changes once the scope of a project has been agreed
Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which statement is FALSE?
A. A project outcome perceived to be negative by one or more stakeholders is a dis-benefit
B. A project’s output is any of the project’s specialist products
C. A project benefit is only realized after the project has closed
D. A project outcome is the result of the change derived from using the project’s outputs
Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Which is a responsibility of the managing level within the project management team?
A. Set project tolerances
B. Approve stage completion
C. Ensure that the products are produced within the constraints agreed with the Project Board
D. Appoint the project management team
Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about stakeholders are true?
1. Someone who thinks they will be affected by a project is a stakeholder on that project
2. Stakeholders may be internal or external to the corporate organization
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Which is a purpose of quality planning?
A. Define the structure of the project management team
B. Detail the acceptance criteria, in order for the Project Board to agree the level of quality expected of the project’s product
C. Document approval records for those project products that have met their quality criteria
D. Produce the Project Plan with resource and schedule information
Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
(1) Local service desk
(2) Virtual service desk
(3) IT help desk
(4) Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION 7
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Answer: C
QUESTION 8
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
(1) To automatically detect service-affecting events
(2) To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
(3) To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION 10
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
(1) Those planned to be delivered
(2) Those being delivered
(3) Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
QUESTION 13
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Answer: D
QUESTION 15
When can a known error record be raised?
(1) At any time it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management
Answer: C
QUESTION 18
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group
Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
What is the entry point or the first level of the V model?
A. Customer / Business Needs
B. Service Release
C. Service Requirements
D. Service Solution
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Service Acceptance criteria are used to?
A. Ensure the design stage of the Lifecycle
B. Ensure Portfolio Management is in place
C. Ensure delivery and support of a service
D. Ensure service Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are reported
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT a part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking the overall service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?
A. Service level agreements (SLAs)
B. Third-party contracts
C. The service portfolio
D. Operational level agreements (OLAs)
Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfillment?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?
A. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
B. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?
A. Availability Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Continual Service Improvement
D. Business Relationship Management
Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which of the following activities are carried out in the “Where do we want to be?” step of the continual service improvement (CSI) model / approach?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurable improvements
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets
Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Knowledge
C. Wisdom
D. Information
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?
A. Incident Management
B. Request Fulfillment
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Access management
Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. The only phase of the Service Management Lifecycle where value can be measured is Service Operation
2. All of the phases of the lifecycle are concerned with the value of IT services
A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only
Answer: C
QUESTION 13
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
B. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
C. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
D. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following items would commonly be on the agenda for a change advisory board (CAB)?
1. Details of failed changes
2. Updates to the change schedule
3. Reviews of completed changes
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?
1. Core
2. Enabling
3. Special
A. 1 and 3only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
What is defined as the ability of a service, component or configuration item (CI) to perform its agreed function when required?
A. Serviceability
B. Availability
C. Capacity
D. Continuity
Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an incident?
1. Incident model
2. Known error record
A. 1 only
B. 2only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which types of communication would the functions within service operation use?
1. Communication between data centre shifts
2. Communication related to changes
3. Performance reporting
4. Routine operational communication
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Where would all the possible service improvement opportunities be recorded?
A. CSI register
B. Known error database
C. Capacity management information system
D. Configuration management database
Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes
A. All of the above
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?
A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
B. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
C. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
D. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?
A. Do
B. Perform
C. Implement
D. Measure
Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?
A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), quality
B. Strategic, tactical and operational
C. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activities
D. Technology, process and service
Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?
1. Customers
2. Users
3. Suppliers
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION 12
From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?
A. User
B. Customer
C. Supplier
D. Administrator
Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?
A. Request fulfilment
B. Service portfolio management
C. Service desk
D. IT finance
Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the best definition of service management?
A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needs
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
C. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
D. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers
Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data
Answer: C
Passing your EXIN EX0-117 Exam by using the latest EX0-117 Demo Full Version: http://www.braindump2go.com/ex0-117.html
QUESTION 1
Which of the following can include steps that will help to resolve an Incident?
1. Incident Model
2. Known Error Record
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?
1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time
2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
A. None of the above
B. Both of the above
C. 1 only
D. 2 only
Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?
A. Change Management
B. Service Transition
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Design
Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A. Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B. Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C. Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D. Development, negotiation and agreement of Operational Level Agreements (OLAs)
Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which of the following activities are carried out in the “Where do we want to be?” step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Implementing service and process improvements
B. Reviewing measurable improvements
C. Creating a baseline
D. Defining measurable targets
Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?
1. Local Service Desk
2. Virtual Service Desk
3. IT Help Desk
4. Follow the Sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement(SLA)?
A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D. An SLA for a service with no customers
Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?
A. Capacity Management
B. Governance
C. Service Design
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B
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